The “man of lawlessness” is a strange figure, in many ways. I don’t have any grand theories about this figure, in fact the idea is a bit daunting to me because to think about this figure I have to enter into that most confusing of Biblical genres, Apocalyptic. Which I won’t now. But, I find ” the man of lawlessness” interesting because he seems to show up late in the New Testament. When the prophets described the desolation of Israel, it was by the Hand of God because of their sins. The Day of the Lord, as a future event, had two parts; His judgement and the restoration of Israel. A figure that embodies evil never shows up in the prophets (unless you count Moab and/or Babylon - but those were specific, known entities).
Is Paul using the term “man of lawlessness” in a metaphoric sense: a person that represents and idea? Or is this a specific person? The tradition that I grew up in would have shouted, “a specific person” here, and perhaps for that reason alone I hesitate; I have been trained to read this as a person (whom I should attempt to identify - its Karl Marx!), and that training alone makes reading it any differently more difficult.
I’ll hold off on a conclusion for now: there is still plenty of Apocalyptic ahead of me.
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